[Free] 2018(Jan) Dumps4cert Examcollection ECCouncil 312-38 Dumps with VCE and PDF 81-90
EC-Council Network Security Administrator (ENSA)
Question No: 81 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 1)
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile devices.
Question No: 82 – (Topic 1)
In which of the following attacks does an attacker use software that tries a large number of key combinations in order to get a password?
Brute force attack
Answer: B Explanation:
In a brute force attack, an attacker uses software that tries a large number of key combinations in order to get a password. To prevent such attacks, users should create passwords that are more difficult to guess, i.e., by using a minimum of six characters, alphanumeric combinations, and lower-upper case combinations.
Answer option D is incorrect. Smurf is an attack that generates significant computer network traffic on a victim network. This is a type of denial-of-service attack that floods a target system via spoofed broadcast ping messages. In such attacks, a perpetrator sends a large amount of ICMP echo request (ping) traffic to IP broadcast addresses, all of which have a spoofed source IP address of the intended victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP broadcast to all hosts, most hosts on that IP network will take the ICMP echo request and reply to it with an echo reply, which multiplies the traffic by the number of hosts responding.
Answer option A is incorrect. Buffer overflow is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept. It helps an attacker not only to execute a malicious code on the target system but also to install backdoors on the target system for further attacks. All buffer overflow attacks are due to only sloppy programming or poor memory management by the application developers. The main types of buffer overflows are:
Stack overflow Format string overflow
Heap overflow Integer overflow
Answer option C is incorrect. A zero-day attack, also known as zero-hour attack, is a computer threat that tries to exploit computer application vulnerabilities which are unknown to others, undisclosed to the software vendor, or for which no security fix is available. Zero- day exploits (actual code that can use a security hole to carry out an attack) are used or shared by attackers before the software vendor knows about the mvulnerability. User awareness training is the most effective technique to mitigate such attacks.
Question No: 83 – (Topic 1)
In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, which of the following cables is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable?
Answer: D Explanation:
In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, a crossover cable is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Parallel and serial cables do not use RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable. Parallel cables are used to connect printers, scanners etc., to computers, whereas serial cables are used to connect modems, digital cameras etc., to computers.
Answer option A is incorrect. A loopback cable is used for testing equipments.
Question No: 84 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a credit card-sized device used to securely store personal information and used in conjunction with a PIN number to authenticate users?
Answer: D Explanation:
A smart card is a credit card-sized device used to securely store personal information such as certificates, public and private keys, passwords, etc. It is used in conjunction with a PIN number to authenticate users. In Windows, smart cards are used to enable certificate- based authentication. To use smart cards, Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) must be configured in Windows.
Answer option B is incorrect. Java Card is a technology that allows Java-based applications to be run securely on smart cards and small memory footprint devices. Java Card gives a user the ability to program devices and make them application specific. It is widely used in SIM
cards and ATM cards. Java Card products are based on the Java Card Platform specifications developed by Sun Microsystems, a supplementary of Oracle Corporation. Many Java card products also rely on the global platform specifications for the secure management of applications on the card. The main goals of the Java Card technology are portability and security.
Answer option A is incorrect. Proximity card (or Prox Card) is a generic name for contactless integrated circuit devices used for security access or payment systems. It can refer to the older 125 kHz devices or the newer 13.56 MHz contactless RFID cards, most commonly known as contactless smartcards.Modern proximity cards are covered by the ISO/IEC 14443 (Proximity Card) standard. There is also a related ISO/IEC 15693 (Vicinity Card) standard. Proximity cards are powered by resonant energy transfer and have a range of 0-3 inches in most instances. The user will usually be able to leave the card inside a wallet or purse. The price of the cards is also low, usually US$2-$5, allowing them to be used in applications such as identification cards, keycards, payment cards and public transit fare cards.
Answer option C is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm, but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the thinner MMC cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are also available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.
Question No: 85 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following OSI layers establishes, manages, and terminates the connections between the local and remote applications?
Data Link layer
Answer: D Explanation:
The session layer of the OSI/RM controls the dialogues (connections) between computers. It establishes, manages and terminates the connections between the local and remote application. It provides for full-duplex, half-duplex, or simplex operation, and establishes checkpointing, adjournment, termination, and restart procedures. The OSI model made this layer responsible for graceful close of sessions, which is a property of the Transmission Control Protocol, and also for session checkpointing and recovery, which is not usually used in the Internet Protocol Suite. The Session Layer is commonly implemented explicitly in application environments that use remote procedure calls.
Answer option C is incorrect. The Application Layer of TCP/IP model refers to the higher- level protocols used by most applications for network communication. Examples of application layer protocols include the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Data coded according to application layer protocols are then encapsulated into one or more transport layer protocols, which in turn use lower layer protocols to affect actual data transfer.
Answer option A is incorrect. The Data Link Layer is Layer 2 of the seven-layer OSI model of computer networking. It corresponds to or is part of the link layer of the TCP/IP reference model. The Data Link Layer is the protocol layer which transfers data between adjacent network nodes in a wide area network or between nodes on the same local area network segment. The Data Link Layer provides the functional and procedural means to transfer data between network entities and might provide the means to detect and possibly correct errors that may occur in the Physical Layer. Examples of data link protocols are Ethernet for local area networks (multi-node), the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), HDLC, and ADCCP for point-to-point (dual-node) connections.
Answer option B is incorrect. The network layer controls the operation of subnet, deciding which physical path the data should take, based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. Routers work on the Network layer of the OSI stack.
Question No: 86 – (Topic 1)
Adam, a malicious hacker, is sniffing an unprotected Wi-FI network located in a local store with Wireshark to capture hotmail e-mail traffic. He knows that lots of people are using their laptops for browsing the Web in the store. Adam wants to sniff their e-mail messages traversing the unprotected Wi-Fi network. Which of the following Wireshark filters will Adam configure to display only the packets with hotmail email messages?
(http = quot;login.pass.comquot;) amp;amp; (http contains quot;SMTPquot;)
(http contains quot;emailquot;) amp;amp; (http contains quot;hotmailquot;)
(http contains quot;hotmailquot;) amp;amp; (http contains quot;Reply-Toquot;)
(http = quot;login.passport.comquot;) amp;amp; (http contains quot;POP3quot;)
Answer: C Explanation:
Adam will use (http contains quot;hotmailquot;) amp;amp; (http contains quot;Reply-Toquot;) filter to display only the packets with hotmail email messages. Each Hotmail message contains the tag Reply- To: and quot;xxxx-xxx- xxx.xxxx.hotmail.comquot; in the received tag. Wireshark is a free packet sniffer computer application. It is used for network troubleshooting, analysis, software and communications protocol development, and education. Wireshark is very similar to tcpdump, but it has a graphical front-end, and many more information sorting and filtering options. It allows the user to see all traffic being passed over the network (usually an Ethernet network but support is being added for others) by putting the network interface into promiscuous mode.Wireshark uses pcap to capture packets, so it can only capture the packets on the networks supported by pcap. It has the following features: Data can be captured quot;from the wirequot; from a live network connection or read from a file that records the already-captured packets. Live data can be read from a number of types of network, including Ethernet, IEEE 802.11, PPP, and loopback. Captured network data can be browsed via a GUI, or via the terminal (command line) version of the utility, tshark.
Captured files can be programmatically edited or converted via command-line switches to the quot;editcapquot; program. Data display can be refined using a display filter. Plugins can be created for dissecting new protocols.
Answer options B, A, and D are incorrect. These are invalid tags.
Question No: 87 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following are the distance-vector routing protocols? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Answer: C,D Explanation:
Following are the two distance-vector routing protocols:
RIP: RIP is a dynamic routing protocol used in local and wide area networks. As such, it is classified as an interior gateway protocol (IGP). It uses the distance-vector routing algorithm. It employs the hop count as a routing metric. RIP prevents routing loops by implementing a limit on the number of hops allowed in a path from the source to a destination. It implements the split horizon, route poisoning, and hold-down mechanisms to prevent incorrect routing information from being propagated.
IGRP: Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) is a Cisco proprietary distance vector Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP). It is used by Cisco routers to exchange routing data within an autonomous system (AS). This is a classful routing protocol and does not support variable length subnet masks (VLSM). IGRP supports multiple metrics for each route, including bandwidth, delay, load, MTU, and reliability.
Answer options B and A are incorrect. OSPF and IS-IS are link state routing protocols.
Question No: 88 – (Topic 1)
With which of the following forms of acknowledgment can the sender be informed by the data receiver about all segments that have arrived successfully?
Answer: D Explanation:
Selective Acknowledgment (SACK) is one of the forms of acknowledgment. With selective acknowledgments, the sender can be informed by a data receiver about all segments that have arrived successfully, so the sender retransmits only those segments that have actually been lost. The selective acknowledgment extension uses two TCP options: The first is an enabling option, quot;SACK-permittedquot;, which may be sent in a SYN segment to indicate that the SACK option can be used
once the connection is established. The other is the SACK option itself, which can be sent over an established connection once permission has been given by quot;SACK-permittedquot;.
Answer option A is incorrect. Block Acknowledgment (BA) was initially defined in IEEE 802.11e as an optional scheme to improve the MAC efficiency. IEEE 802.11n capable devices are also referred to as High Throughput (HT) devices.Instead of transmitting an individual ACK for every MPDU, multiple MPDUs can be acknowledged together using a single BA frame. Block Ack (BA) contains bitmap size of 64*16 bits. Each bit of this bitmap represents the status (success/failure) of an MPDU.
Answer option B is incorrect. With Negative Acknowledgment, the receiver explicitly notifies the sender which packets, messages, or segments were received incorrectly that may need to be retransmitted.
Answer option C is incorrect. With Cumulative Acknowledgment, the receiver acknowledges that it has correctly received a packet, message, or segment in a stream which implicitly informs the sender that the previous packets were received correctly. TCP uses cumulative acknowledgment with its TCP sliding window.
Question No: 89 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 1)
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. is a method for monitoring the e-mail delivery to the intended recipient.
Answer: Email tracking
Question No: 90 – (Topic 1)
You work as the network administrator for uCertify Inc. The company has planned to add the support for IPv6 addressing. The initial phase deployment of IPv6 requires support from some IPv6-only devices. These devices need to access servers that support only IPv4.
Which of the following tools would be suitable to use?
Answer: B Explanation:
NAT-PT (Network address translation-Protocol Translation) is useful when an IPv4-only host needs to communicate with an IPv4-only host. NAT-PT (Network Address Translation- Protocol Translation) is an implementation of RFC 2766 as specified by the IETF. NAT-PT was designed so that it can be run on low-end, commodity hardware. NAT-PT runs in user space, capturing and translating packets between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks (and vice- versa). NAT-PT uses the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Neighbor Discovery (ND) on the IPv4 and IPv6 network systems, respectively.
NAT-Protocol Translation can be used to translate both the source and destination IP addresses.
Answer option D is incorrect. Native IPv6 is of use when the IPv6 deployment is pervasive, with heavy traffic loads.
Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-point tunnels work well when IPv6 is needed only in a subset of sites. These point-to-point tunnels act as virtual point-to-point serial link. These are useful when the traffic is of very high volume.
Answer option A is incorrect. The multipoint tunnels are used for IPv6 deployment even when IPv6 is needed in a subset of sites and is suitable when the traffic is infrequent and of less predictable volume.
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